2008-06-10 08:37:45 UTC
http://www.ditext.com/runes/n.html
2)"...naturalistic psychology emphasizes the physical basis of human behavior; ideas and ideals are largely treated as artifacts...." ibid
AND
2)A) "...human beings as "products" should be studied impartially, without moralizing about their natures."
http://www.wsu.edu/~campbelld/amlit/natu...
This is not a test. I don't see the connection. How did those views come to be connected, when to me they seem entirely opposed? If naturalism disposes of "anthropomorphology," then why does it resort to the same, instead of morals, in defining human action?